The Laplace transformation of a product is not the product of the transforms. All hope is not lost, however. We simply have to use a different type of a “product.” Take two functions \(f(t)\) and \(g(t)\) defined for \(t \geq 0\text{,}\) and define the convolution 1
For those that have seen convolution before, you may have seen it defined as \((f * g)(t) =
\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(\tau) g(t-\tau) \, d\tau\text{.}\) This definition agrees with (6.2) if you define \(f(t)\) and \(g(t)\) to be zero for \(t < 0\text{.}\) When discussing the Laplace transform, the definition we gave is sufficient. Convolution does occur in many other applications, however, where you may have to use the more general definition with infinities.
Convolution has many properties that make it behave like a product. Let \(c\) be a constant and \(f\text{,}\)\(g\text{,}\) and \(h\) be functions. It is a calculus exercise to verify that
\begin{equation*}
\begin{aligned}
& f * g = g * f , \\
& (c f) * g = f * (c g) = c (f*g) , \\
& (f+g) * h = f * h + g * h , \\
& ( f * g ) * h = f * ( g * h ) .
\end{aligned}
\end{equation*}
The most interesting property for us is the following theorem.
In other words, the Laplace transform of a convolution is the product of the Laplace transforms: \({\mathcal{L}} \bigl\{ (f*g)(t) \bigr\} = F(s)G(s)\text{,}\) or in reverse, \({\mathcal{L}}^{-1} \bigl\{ F(s) G(s) \bigr\} = (f*g)(t)\text{.}\)
The next example demonstrates the full power of the convolution and the Laplace transform. We can give the solution to the forced oscillation problem for any forcing function as a definite integral.
We first apply the Laplace transform to the equation. Denote the transform of \(x(t)\) by \(X(s)\) and the transform of \(f(t)\) by \(F(s)\) as usual. We get
Notice one more feature of the example above. We can now see how the Laplace transform handles resonance. Suppose that \(f(t) =
\cos (\omega_0 t)\text{.}\) Then
The general idea here is that if \(H(s)\) is the transfer function, then \(X(s)=H(s)F(s)\text{.}\) If we find the \(h(t) = {\mathcal{L}}^{-1}\bigl\{ H(s) \bigr\}\text{,}\) then
Hence, we can solve any constant-coefficient equation with an arbitrary forcing function \(f(t)\) as a definite integral using convolution. A definite integral, rather than a closed form solution, is usually enough for most practical purposes. It is not hard to numerically evaluate a definite integral.
where \(f(t)\) and \(g(t)\) are known functions and \(x(t)\) is an unknown we wish to solve for. To find \(x(t)\text{,}\) we apply the Laplace transform to the equation to obtain
\begin{equation*}
m x'' + c x' + k x = f(t) , \quad x(0) = 0, \quad x'(0) = 0 ,
\end{equation*}
for an arbitrary function \(f(t)\text{,}\) where \(m > 0\text{,}\)\(c > 0\text{,}\)\(k > 0\text{,}\) and \(c^2 - 4km > 0\) (the system is overdamped). Write the solution as a definite integral.
\begin{equation*}
m x'' + c x' + k x = f(t) , \quad x(0) = 0, \quad x'(0) = 0 ,
\end{equation*}
for an arbitrary function \(f(t)\text{,}\) where \(m > 0\text{,}\)\(c > 0\text{,}\)\(k > 0\text{,}\) and \(c^2 - 4km < 0\) (the system is underdamped). Write the solution as a definite integral.
\begin{equation*}
m x'' + c x' + k x = f(t) , \quad x(0) = 0, \quad x'(0) = 0 ,
\end{equation*}
for an arbitrary function \(f(t)\text{,}\) where \(m > 0\text{,}\)\(c > 0\text{,}\)\(k > 0\text{,}\) and \(c^2 = 4km\) (the system is critically damped). Write the solution as a definite integral.
Write down the solution to \(x''-2x=e^{-t^2}\text{,}\)\(x(0)=0\text{,}\)\(x'(0)=0\) as a definite integral. Hint: Do not try to compute the Laplace transform of \(e^{-t^2}\text{.}\)